Blood Quiz

Quiz for Blood – Composition of Blood

Exercises for COMPOSITION OF BLOOD


1. Plasma constitutes approximately _____ percentage of the blood and is composed mainly of _____.

a. 45 percent; water
b. 50 percent; protoplasm
c. 55 percent; water
d. 70 percent; cytoplasm
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c. 55 percent; water
 
 

2. What does chromatin regulate in a cell during maturation?

a. Movement
b. Growth
c. Granulation
d. Waste products
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b. Growth
 
 

3. Cytoplasmic granulation is usually due to cytoplasmic:

a. Fibrils
b. Inclusions
c. Organelles
d. Parachromatin
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b. Inclusions
 
 

4. When stained with Wright’s stain, what is the colour of the normal RBC and how is it accented?

a. Light orange granular zone
b. Pale green, central pale zone
c. Pale, greenish-yellowish, central pale zone
d. Buff pink, central zone of pallor
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d. Buff pink, central zone of pallor
 
 

5. A greyish, viscous liquid living substance within the cell that regulates the interchange of materials between the cell and the environment is called:

a. Cytoplasm.
b. Protoplasm.
c. Centriole.
d. Mitochondria.

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b. Protoplasm.
 
 

6. The nuclear fibrils that possibly regulate growth activity during maturation and are made up of DNA (deoxyribonucleic acid) and protein are called:

a. Lysosome.
b. Golgi apparatus.
c. Chromatin.
d. Mitochondria.

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c. Chromatin.
 
 

7. Which chromatin substances are contained within cytoplasm and are classified as organelles?

a. All granules, filaments, and globules inside the nucleus.
b. Mitochondria, Golgi apparatus, fibrils, and centrioles are some of them.
c. Some granules, filaments, and globules inside the nucleus.

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b. Mitochondria, Golgi apparatus, fibrils, and centrioles are some of them.
 
 

8. Which organoid substance appears like a cork-screw cigar?

a. Golgi apparatus.
b. Fibrils.
c. Centrioles.
d. Mitochondria.
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d. Mitochondria.
 
 

9. Mitochondria is defined as:

a. A meshwork of lipid containing fibrils within the cytoplasmic portion of a cell.
b. A spherical or oval body surrounded by a thin membrane (nuclear membrane).
c. Granular components of a cell cytoplasm active in oxidative processes.
d. A minute cell organoid within the centrosome.
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c. Granular components of a cell cytoplasm active in oxidative processes.
 
 

10. Centriole is defined as:

a. A meshwork of lipid containing fibrils within the cytoplasmic portion of a cell.
b. A spherical or oval body surrounded by a thin membrane (nuclear membrane).
c. Granular components of a cell cytoplasm active in oxidative processes.
d. A minute cell organoid within the centrosome.
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d. A minute cell organoid within the centrosome.
 
 

11. Only nucleated RBCs are formed in the islands of the yolk sac during the _____ of embryonic development.

a. First two months.
b. Third to fifth months.
c. Fifth to final months.
d. Entire duration.
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a. First two months.
 
 

12. The bone marrow is the principal organ of red blood cell production during the myeloid phase as well as at birth and during the remainder of life.

a. First two months.
b. Third to fifth months.
c. Fifth to final months.
d. Entire duration.
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c. Fifth to final months.
 
 

12. The bone marrow is the principal organ of red blood cell production during the myeloid phase as well as at birth and during the remainder of life.

a. First two months.
b. Third to fifth months.
c. Fifth to final months.
d. Entire duration.
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c. Fifth to final months.
 
 

13. As the child matures, myelopoiesis is increasingly confined to the:

a. Bones.
b. Medullary sites.
c. Ligaments.
d. Muscles.
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a. Bones.
 
 

14. Which definition of myelopoeisis is correct?

a. It is the production of blood cells and bone marrow by the kidney.
b. It is the production of blood cells and bone marrow by the liver.
c. It is the production of blood cells and bone marrow by the bone marrow (medullary site of production).
d. A decrease in the number of neutrophils in the blood.
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c. It is the production of blood cells and bone marrow by the bone marrow (medullary site of production).
 
 

15. During the formation of blood cells, which tissue is their primary source?

a. Striated tissue.
b. Mesenchyme connective tissue in the embryo.
c. Liver.
d. Tissue thromboplastin.
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b. Mesenchyme connective tissue in the embryo.
 
 

16. The three types of granulation occurring during normal cell maturation that become more specific and smaller as the cell matures are:

a. Basophilic, hematopoietic, and eosinophilic.
b. Non-hematopietic, neutrophilic, and eosinophilic.
c. Netrophilic, basophilic, an eosinophilic.
d. Basophllic, neutrophilic, and idiopathic.
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c. Netrophilic, basophilic, an eosinophilic.
 
 

17. Immature blood cells that are so young that they can hardly be distinguished morphologically from each other are called:

a. First cells.
b. Blast cells.
c. Band cells.
d. Monocytes.
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b. Blast cells.
 
 

18. What occurs to the RNA content of the blast cell as it matures?

a. Increases.
b. Decreases.
c. All of the above.
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b. Decreases.
 
 

19. Generally speaking, as normal cells maturate:

a. The nucleus decreases in size.
b. The cytoplasm differentiates.
c. The cell reduces in size.
d. All of the above.
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d. All of the above.
 
 

20. What colour does the blast cell develop into as it matures?

a. Green.
b. Dark purple.
c. Blue.
d. Pinkish-purple.
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c. Blue.
 
 

21. Lymphocytes during normal cell maturation are devoid of cytoplasmic granulation but can possess nonspecific _____ granules.

a. Azurophilic.
b. Dark green.
c. Light pink.
d. Rich orange.
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a. Azurophilic.
 
 

22. What colours do basophilic and neutrophilic granules appear when Wright’s stain is applied?

a. Pink or brown-orange.
b. Red-orange; blue-black.
c. Blue-black; pinkish-purple.
d. Reddish-purple; blue-black.
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c. Blue-black; pinkish-purple.
 
 

23. With Wright’s stain, eosinophilic granules appear large and:

a. Pink or brown.
b. Red-orange.
c. Blue-black.
d. Reddish-purple.
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b. Red-orange.
 
 

24. With Wright’s stain, the nonspecific azurophilic granule is:

a. Pink or brown.
b. Red-orange.
c. Colorless.
d. Red/dark purple.
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d. Red/dark purple.
 
 

25. The presence of _____ shaped nucleoli is generally a sign of a cell _____.

a. Oblong; maturity.
b. Crater; immaturity.
c. Lacelike; cytoplasmic change.
d. Coarse; granulocytic change.
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b. Crater; immaturity.
 
 

26. Abnormal cytoplasmic maturation is seen most frequently in:

a. Monocytes.
b. Lymphocytes.
c. Granulocytes.
d. Erythrocytes.
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c. Granulocytes.
 
 

27. What are Dohle bodies?

a. Immature RBCs.
b. Atypical monocytes.
c. Abnormal lymphocytes.
d. Inclusions in the cytoplasm.
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d. Inclusions in the cytoplasm.
 
 

28. What is another term for normal cell maturation?

a. Polychromatic development.
b. Synchronous development.
c. Asynchronous development.
d. Rieder development.
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b. Synchronous development.
 
 

29. What term is used to describe abnormal cell maturation or uncoordinated cell development?

a. abnormal mitosis.
b. Asynchronous development.
c. Binary fission.
d. Synchronous development.
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b. Asynchronous development.
 
 

30. If asynchronism occurs in the cytoplasm, where would it most commonly be seen?

a. Granulocytes.
b. Nucleolus.
c. Lysosome.
d. Mitochondria.
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a. Granulocytes.
 
 

31. When there is abnormal cell maturation, where do inclusions occur?

a. Cell membrane.
b. Nucleus.
c. Cytoplasm.
d. Fat droplet.
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c. Cytoplasm.
 
 

32. Which cytoplasmic cells show basophilia late in the series and haemoglobinization retardation during abnormal cells maturation?

a. Monocytes.
b. Lymphocytes.
c. Granulocytes.
d. Erythrocytes.
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d. Erythrocytes.
 
 

33. What type of inclusions are seen in leukaemia?

a. Auer rods.
b. Rieder cells.
c. Juvenile cells.
d. Macrocytosis.
e. Aplastic anaemia.
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a. Auer rods.
 
 

34. When a cell is maturing abnormally, how many nuclei might it have if it has a severe disturbance such as leukaemia?

a. 0.
b. 1.
c. 2.
d. 3.
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c. 2.
 
 

35. The nuclei of abnormal cells often have:

a. Two nuclei, in severe disturbances, as in leukaemia.
b. Reduced reduction of nucleoli.
c. Undifferentiating granules.
d. All of the above.
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d. All of the above.
 
 

36. Hyposegmented nuclei occur in the neutrophils in _____ and in pernicious _____.

a. Sepsis; leukaemia.
b. Sepsis; anaemia.
c. Sepsis; haematoma.
d. Sepsis; sickle cell anaemia.
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37. Homeostasis is defined as:

a. Biological constancy or integrity of blood or the checking of the flow of blood, especially from a vessel.
b. The spitting of blood; coughing up blood.
c. Infection of the marrow; infectious disease.
d. Blood cells reaching full maturity and entering the mainstream to begin their functions.
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a. Biological constancy or integrity of blood or the checking of the flow of blood, especially from a vessel.
 
 

38. Which statement is correct concerning the function of the blood cell?

a. Individually, each component of blood provides the maintenance for a relatively stable environment of the body by a variety of mechanisms.
b. Together, the blood components provide the maintenance for a relatively stable environment of the body by a variety of mechanisms.
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b. Together, the blood components provide the maintenance for a relatively stable environment of the body by a variety of mechanisms.
 
 

39. One function of the erythrocyte is to aid in the maintenance of the delicate acid- base buffer system of the body. Which part of the cell performs this function?

a. Haemoglobin.
b. Membrane.
c. Lysosome.
d. Glycoproteins.
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a. Haemoglobin.
 
 

40. Which are the oxygen-carrying cells of the body?

a. Monocytes.
b. Granulocytes.
c. Lymphocytes.
d. Erythrocytes.
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d. Erythrocytes.
 
 

41. _____ mainly controls the level of oxygen in the tissues.

a. Haemoglobin.
b. Chemotaxis.
c. Phagocytosis.
d. Adrenocorticotropic hormone.
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a. Haemoglobin.
 
 

42. Erythrocytes, leukocytes, and platelets are considered to be the _____ of (in) the blood.

a. Coagulation factors.
b. Immunologic functions.
c. Components.
d. Antibodies.
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c. Components.
 
 

43. Which cells possess the powers of locomotion and phagocytosis?

a. Erythrocytes.
b. Leukocytes.
c. Thrombocytes.
d. Platelets.
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b. Leukocytes.
 
 

44. Which cell is able to phagocytize the largest particles and because of this is called macrophage?

a. Neutrophils.
b. Eosinophils.
c. Basophils.
d. Monocytes.
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d. Monocytes.
 
 

45. Which cell has the main function of transporting O2 to the tissues and removing CO2?

a. Neutrophils.
b. Eosinophils.
c. Basophils.
d. Erythrocyte.
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d. Erythrocyte.
 
 

46. Which cell is surrounded by cellular pseudopodia and is not injured by “combat activity” taking place in the vacuole?

a. Eosinophils.
b. Neutrophils.
c. Monocytes.
d. Basophils.
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b. Neutrophils.
 
 

47. Which cell is incapable of mitotic division?

a. Eosinophils.
b. Neutrophils.
c. Monocytes.
d. Basophils.
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b. Neutrophils.
 
 

48. Which statement is correct?

a. Monocytes are cells containing FBs with substances released from the cytoplasm.
b. Lymphocytes are now believed to contain heparin.
c. Eosinophils are involved with Ag/Ab reactions and eat Ag/Ab reactants.
d. Basophils may be involved in attracting cells to substances and then either transport or engulf them.
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c. Eosinophils are involved with Ag/Ab reactions and eat Ag/Ab reactants.
 
 

49. Cellular particles associated with the clotting of blood are:

a. Thrombocytes (platelets).
b. Hemoglobin particles.
c. White blood cells.
d. Red blood cells.
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a. Thrombocytes (platelets).
 
 

50. Which statement is correct?

a. Platelets possess metabolic systems, expend energy, respond to stimuli, and then disintegrate.
b. Platelets possess metabolic systems, mobilize the bone marrow, expend energy, and respond to stimuli.
c. Platelets possess carbon dioxide and metabolic systems, expend energy, and respond to stimuli.
d. Platelets possess metabolic systems, expend energy, respond to stimuli, and undergo glycolysis.
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d. Platelets possess metabolic systems, expend energy, respond to stimuli, and undergo glycolysis.
 
 
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